Black Money Law | FAQs on Undisclosed/Foreign Assets Located Outside India

  • Blog|Income Tax|
  • 16 Min Read
  • By Taxmann
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  • Last Updated on 19 December, 2023

black money law

Table of Contents

  1. Financial interest and Beneficial Owner
  2. Flow of Consideration and Beneficial Owner
  3. Difference between ‘Beneficial Owner’ and ‘Beneficiary’
  4. Foreign Asset ‘held’ or not
Check out Taxmann's Guide to Black Money Law which presents the legal provisions of the Black Money Act in a concise and precise manner without tampering with the intent and spirit of the law. The analysis features Case Laws, Circulars & Notifications issued by the CBDT.

1. Financial interest and Beneficial Owner

Further, while the aforesaid definition uses the expression

“Financial interest in any entity”

But the said expression is neither defined under the Act or Income-tax Act. In the absence of any definition, having regard to the wide scope of the said expression, it would be a matter of dispute between the tax authorities and assessee as to when an assessee who is not the owner of a foreign entity, nor holds equity shares therein, could be said to be holding financial interest therein. An issue would arise as to when an assessee who is not the shareholder of a foreign entity, but is nominated as the beneficiary in the bank account opening form of such entity, could be said to be holding financial interest in such entity. It would have been better if the aforesaid expression was defined in the Act.

The important condition prescribed in the definition is the “beneficial owner” of the foreign asset. The aforesaid expression has again not been defined in the Act. However, the aforesaid expression is defined under the Income-tax Act in the following manner which should be adopted for the purposes of the Act in view of clause (15) of section 2:

“Return of income

139. (1) ** ** **

Explanation 4.— For the purposes of this section “beneficial owner” in respect of an asset means an individual who has provided, directly or indirectly, consideration for the asset for the immediate or future benefit, direct or indirect, of himself or any other person.

Explanation 5.— For the purposes of this section “beneficiary” in respect of an asset means an individual who derives benefit from the asset during the previous year and the consideration for such asset has been provided by any person other than such beneficiary.”

The aforesaid view regarding the meaning of beneficial owner has to be borrowed from Income-tax Act has been echoed by CBDT in Circular No. 13 of 2015 in the following manner:

Circular No.13 of 2015 – (Annexure 4)

** ** **

FAQ 1. A person is a beneficiary in a foreign asset. Is he eligible for declaration under section 59 of the Act?

As far as ownership is concerned, as per section 2(11) of the Act

“undisclosed asset located outside India” means an asset held by the person in his name or in respect of which he is a beneficial owner. The definition of “beneficial owner” and “beneficiary” is provided in Explanation 4 and Explanation 5 to section 139(1) of the Income-tax Act, respectively (which is at variance with the determination of beneficial ownership provided under Rule 9(3) of the PMLA (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005). Therefore, for the purpose of the Act “beneficial owner” in respect of an asset means an individual who has provided, directly or indirectly, consideration for the asset for the immediate or future benefit, direct or indirect, of himself or any other person. Further, “beneficiary” in respect of an asset means an individual who derives benefit from the asset during the previous year and the consideration for such asset has been provided by any person other than such beneficiary. Therefore, as per the Act the beneficial owner is eligible for declaration under section 59 of the Act.

There may be a case where a person is listed as a beneficiary in a foreign asset, however, if he has provided consideration for the asset, directly or indirectly, he will be covered under the definition of beneficial owner for the purposes of the Act.”

It is clear from definition of “beneficial owner” as provided in the Income-tax Act, that to prove the beneficial ownership, it falls upon the revenue to determine two things

(a) The accused has provided the consideration of the asset, whether directly or indirectly

(b) The asset is held for immediate and future benefit of the accused or any other person

This interpretation is consistent with the definition of “beneficial ownership” adopted in other special acts such as the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. Section 2(12) of the Benami Property (Prohibition) Act, 1988 defines beneficial owner to mean a person, whether his identity is known or not, for whose benefit the benami property is held by a benamidar. Section 2(fa) of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 defined “beneficial ownership” as meaning as inter alia a person on whose behalf a transaction is being conducted and includes a person who exercises ultimate effective control over a juridical person. Thus for determining the fact of beneficial ownership, the primary conditions that are to be considered are

(i) who provided the consideration

(ii) who is deriving benefits out of the asset

(iii) who exercises the ultimate control over the asset in question. Reference can be made to the decision of ITAT Tribunal in the case of Addl. CIT v. Jatinder Mehra1 wherein the Tribunal considered the following facts:

      • The consideration was not provided by the assessee but by a trust formed and controlled by the son of the assessee,
      • The revenue could not demonstrate that the assessee exercised any control over the shares of the company in whose name the bank account was kept,
      • Further the assessee did not own any shareholding and management rights of the company.

The Tribunal after considering the aforesaid facts and after examining them on the touchstone of conditions mentioned above, held that merely because the account opening form of an overseas bank account mentioned the name of the assessee as beneficial owner, did not necessarily mean that the assessee was the beneficial owner of the bank account.

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2. Flow of Consideration and Beneficial Owner

However, the Co-ordinate Mumbai Bench of the ITAT in the case of Rashesh Manhar Bhansali v. Addl. CIT Mum.2 distanced itself from the reasoning given by the ITAT Delhi in Jatinder Mehra (supra) and held that the Delhi bench of ITAT erred in relying upon the dictionary meaning of the word ‘beneficial owner’ as also the provision of other statutes including Income-tax Act. In the present case, the assessee put upon the defence that he cannot be called a ‘beneficial owner’, since he did not provide the consideration either directly or indirectly for the foreign asset in terms of Explanation 4 to section 139(1) of the Income-tax Act. The ITAT Bench negative the contention of the assessee and observed as follows:

“Coordinate bench has proceeded on the basis that it is not necessary that to examine the provisions of BMA only the definition provided under the Income-tax Act is required to be seen…….the beneficial ownership is required to be understood with respect to its dictionary meaning and also other provisions of other statute also keeping in mind the nature of the object and purposes of the BMA. To the extent that these observations overlook the existence of section 2(15) of BMA, the coordinate bench did indeed err. However, that by itself, does not mean that the decision of the coordinate bench is per incuriam; the reasoning may be per incuriam, that does not necessarily mean that decision is also per incuriam. While there is indeed an error in reasoning process, as noted above, one may add that, it is viewed that whether a term is defined under the Income-tax Act or not, it must also be borne in mind the fact that such a definition comes into play only when the context does not require otherwise. When the definitions under section 2 of the ITA stand incorporated in the BMA, the rider of this definition that is ‘In this Act, unless the context otherwise requires’ must stand incorporated. The context of the definition under the ITA and the BMA must therefore meet to invoke the definition, under the ITA, for the purposes of the BMA. In other words, the definition provided is subject to ‘unless the context requires otherwise’ condition, and, therefore, merely because the expression ‘beneficial ownership’ is defined under Explanation 4 to section 139(1), that definition would not automatically apply to the BMA context as well…

………It is only elementary that BMA is enacted to deal with, as its preamble aptly puts it, “the problem of the black money that is undisclosed foreign income and assets”, and, as such, it deals with the underbelly of the world of offshore companies and tax havens. The present context of ‘beneficial ownership’ is thus diametrically different inasmuch as, unlike the Income-tax Act, it does not deal with transparent business transactions of the normal bona fide business world. Unlike in the situations dealt with in the Income-tax Act, which, more often than not and as a matter of course, deal with the genuine businesses which exist transparently and above board, the BMA deals with the hidden assets located outside India, and undisclosed incomes earned outside India. The monies and incomes stashed abroad in the undisclosed offshore entities in the tax havens and undisclosed foreign bank accounts are, as a rule, not out of the legitimate gains of businesses. In fact, when an assessee can demonstrate that the monies invested in the offshore companies and undisclosed accounts abroad are out of their legitimate earnings, for this reason alone, these investments get outside the ambit of the BMA. The provisions of this Act come into play only when the monies invested are not out of legitimate earnings of the assessee, and, therefore, to expect that the Assessing Officer is required to prove that the assessee has paid consideration for these undisclosed investments before these investments can be said to be undisclosed, is wholly unrealistic. If someone has to invest in an undisclosed offshore entity or an undisclosed foreign bank account, he would not make the investments through official channels. To expect that when an undisclosed asset in the name of an assessee, or a company which is owned by him, is detected abroad, the Assessing Officer will also be required to prove that the assessee has paid, directly or indirectly, for that asset, before the provisions of BMA can be invoked is contrary to common sense. It will make the provisions of the BMA unworkable inasmuch as the Assessing Officer can never prove, let us say, hawala transactions, or account receivables being diverted to the offshore accounts, which are inherently outside the books of account of legitimate businesses. The Assessing Officer thus has to first find out the undisclosed assets, and then he has to prove that the assessee paid, directly or indirectly, for these assets. If the routing of consideration was so transparent that the Assessing Officer could identify the same, it would not normally be for an undisclosed asset. The provisions of BMA can never be put into effect, but then, as is the well-settled position of law, the law can only so be interpreted so as to make it workable rather than redundant, as is the prescription of the Latin maxim ‘ut res magis valeat quam pereat’. A statute is supposed to be an authentic repository of the legislative will and the function of a judicial forum is to interpret it “according to the intent of them that made it.” From that function the judicial forum cannot resile, it has to abide by the maxim ut res magis valeat quampereat, lest the intention of the legislature may go in vain or be left to evaporate in thin air. (See CST v. Mangal Sen Shyam Lal AIR 1975 SC 1106.) The judicial forums should thus as far as possible avoid that construction that attributes irrationality to the legislature. Viewed thus, if we are to hold that definition of ‘beneficial owner’ as assigned by Explanation 4 to section 139(1) is to equally apply, we will end up in a situation in which the BMA itself will become unworkable. Therefore, for both of these reasons- i.e.

(a) the contextual requirements being otherwise, and

(b) the adoption of this meaning rendering the provisions of BMA becoming unworkable

The definition under Explanation 4 to section 139(1) cannot be adopted in the context of the BMA. We reject this plea of the learned counsel as well.”

The ITAT Bench in the aforementioned case rejected the approach adopted by the coordinate Delhi Bench in placing reliance on external aids for interpretation of the phrase ‘beneficial owner’ based on the reason that such reliance will render the meaning unworkable and hence the same does not fit the contextual requirements.

In author’s opinion, the Mumbai ITAT bench has left the definition open, vague and susceptible to misuse/abuse. The legislature has been careful enough to use the words ‘beneficial owner’ to extend the scope of the definition of ‘undisclosed foreign asset’, beyond the person who has held the asset, to also include an assessee who is the beneficial owner, in respect of the ‘undisclosed foreign asset’. Further vide the same definition; the legislature has not only put the burden of explaining the source of investment on the holder of the asset but also the ‘beneficial owner’. Thus it falls upon the revenue to establish a prima facie case that the ‘beneficial owner’, has provided the consideration of the asset.

3. Difference between ‘Beneficial Owner’ and ‘Beneficiary’

From the bare reading of the Act, it is clear that the legislature in its wisdom has consciously used the phrase ‘beneficial owner’ and the word ‘beneficiary’ distinctively. While section 2(11) refers to the phrase ‘beneficial owner’, to expand the scope of the definition beyond the person who has held the asset, sections 49 and 50 of the Act, refers to both, to make sure that neither the ‘beneficial owner’ nor the ‘beneficiary’, are excluded from operation of the Section.

Further CBDT vide Circular No.13, Q No. 31, has recognized that the phrase “beneficial owner” and the word ‘beneficiary’ are distinct from each other as defined in Explanation 4 of and Explanation 5 of Section 139(1) respectively. In the same breath the CBDT has clearly recognized that a ‘beneficiary’ become a ‘beneficial owner’, only when he provides consideration of the asset. The relevant part of the above referred question is reproduced again herewith, to demonstrate the distinction as recognized by the CBDT.

“As far as ownership is concerned, as per section 2(11) of the Act “undisclosed asset located outside India” means an asset held by the person in his name or in respect of which he is a beneficial owner. The definition of “beneficial owner” and “beneficiary” is provided in Explanation 4 and Explanation 5 to section 139(1) of the Income-tax Act, respectively (which is at variance with the determination of beneficial ownership provided under Rule 9(3) of the PMLA (Maintenance of Records) Rules, 2005. Therefore, for the purpose of the Act “beneficial owner” in respect of an asset means an individual who has provide directly or indirectly, consideration for the asset for the immediate or future benefit, direct or indirect, of himself or any other person. Further, “beneficiary” in respect of an asset means an individual who derives benefit from the asset during the previous year and the consideration for such asset has been provided by any person other than such beneficiary. Therefore, as per the Act the beneficial owner is eligible for declaration under section 59 of the Act.

There may be a case where a person is listed as a beneficiary in a foreign asset, however, if he has provided consideration for the asset, directly or indirectly, he will be covered under the definition of beneficial owner for the purposes of the Act.”

In view of the above, on intra polating the definition of ‘beneficial owner’ contained in Explanation 4 to section 139(1) of Income-tax Act to section 2(11) of the Act, it follows that the assessee would be considered as “beneficial owner” in respect of an asset, if such assessee “has provided, directly or indirectly consideration for the asset for the immediate or future benefit, direct or indirect, of himself or any other person”.

Thus from the discussion above, it is clear that the person will not be covered under the scope of section 2(11) by virtue of being a mere ‘beneficiary’, unless it is shown that the ‘beneficiary’ has provided consideration for the undisclosed foreign asset so as to become a ‘beneficial owner’.

Such a distinction may come to the rescue of an assessee where the revenue has not established the flow of consideration from the beneficiary. Example:- where an assessee is nominal settler in the discretionary trust which was created at the behest of his son, for the benefit of the son and his family and the assessee has made no contribution towards the funds of the Trust. The assessee may set up a defence that assessee at best is a discretionary beneficiary and not a beneficial owner as per section 2(11) of the Act.

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4. Foreign Asset ‘held’ or not

The other important question that arises is whether the foreign asset must continue to be held by the assessee at the time of enactment or at the time of receipt of information by the Revenue, in order to fall within the meaning of aforesaid definition, considering that the definition uses the word – “held”. In other words, if the asset stands disposed off prior to enactment or receipt of information, and there is no asset held by the assessee including money in the foreign bank account, since there is no current holding of the relevant asset, such asset do not strictly fall within the language of aforesaid definition.

The CBDT, however, has given contrary clarification to the above reading of the definition in the Circular Nos. 13 and 15 of 2015; the relevant portion of which is reproduced hereunder for ready reference:

Circular No. 13/2015 (Annexure 4)

** ** **

FAQ 2. What are the consequences if no declaration under Chapter VI of the Act is made in respect of undisclosed foreign assets acquired prior to the commencement of the Act?

As per section 72(c), where any asset has been acquired prior to the commencement of the Act and no declaration under Chapter VI of the Act is made then such asset shall be deemed to have been acquired in the year in which it comes to the notice of the Assessing Officer and the provisions of the Act shall apply accordingly.

India is expected to start receiving information through Automatic Exchange Of Information (AEOI) route under FATCA from USA later in the year 2015. Further, under the multilateral agreement India will start receiving information from other countries under AEOI route from 2017 onwards. As on 18th March 2015, 58 jurisdictions (including India) have committed to share information under AEOI by 2017 and 36 jurisdictions have committed to share by 2018, including jurisdictions which have beneficial tax regime. The multilateral agreement is expected to cover all the countries in the near future. The information under the AEOI will include information of controlling persons (beneficial owners) of the asset. The possibility of discovery of an undisclosed asset may arise at any time in the future; say for example, information of an immovable property can be unearthed if any utility bills/property tax or even gardener’s/caretaker’s salary has been paid through an existing or closed bank account. Therefore, if any information of an undisclosed foreign asset acquired earlier, say in the year 1975, for $ 100,000 comes to the notice of an Assessing Officer later, say in the year 2020, when its value becomes, say, $ 5 Million, the liability under the Act amounting to 120 per cent of the fair market value of the asset on the valuation date may arise in the year 2020, besides prosecution and other consequences. In this case if the valuation date is in the year 2020 the amount of tax and penalty under the Act will be $ 6 Million.

** ** **

FAQ 3. A person has a foreign bank account in which undisclosed income has been deposited over several years. He has spent the money in the account over these years and now it has a balance of only $500. Does he need to pay tax on this $500 under the declaration?

Section 59 of the Act provides for declaration of an undisclosed asset and not income. In this case the Bank account is an undisclosed asset which may be declared. Tax on undisclosed asset is required to be paid on its fair market value. In case of a bank account the fair market value is the sum of all the deposits made in the account computed in accordance with Rule 3(1). Therefore, tax and penalty needs to be paid on such fair market value and not on the balance as on date.

FAQ 4. A person held a foreign bank account for a limited period between 1994-95 and 1997-98 which was unexplained. Since such account was closed in 1997-98 does he need to declare the same under Chapter VI of the Act?

Section 59 of the Act provides that the declaration may be made of any undisclosed foreign asset which has been acquired from income which has not been charged to tax under the Income-tax Act. Since the investment in the bank account was unexplained and was from untaxed income the same may be declared under Chapter VI of the Act. The consequences of non-declaration may arise under the Act at any time in the future when the information of such account comes to the notice of the Assessing Officer.

FAQ 5. A person inherited a house property in 2003-04 from his father who is no more. Such property was acquired from unexplained sources of investment. The property was sold by the person in 2011-12. Does he need to declare such property under Chapter VI of the Act and if yes then, what will be the fair market value of such property for the purpose of declaration?

Since the property was from unexplained sources of investment the same may be declared under Chapter VI of the Act. However, the declaration in this case needs be made by the person who inherited the property in the capacity of legal representative of his father. The fair market value of the property in his case shall be higher of its cost of acquisition and the sale price as per Rule 3(2) of the Rules.

FAQ 6. A person acquired a house property in a foreign country during the year 2000-01 from unexplained sources of income. The property was sold in 2007-08 and the proceeds were deposited in a foreign bank account. Does he need to declare both the assets under Chapter VI of the Act and pay tax on both the assets?

The declaration may be made in respect of both the house property and the bank account at their fair market value. The fair market value of the house property shall be higher of its cost and the sale price, less amount deposited in bank account. If the cost price of the house property is higher the declarant will be required to pay tax and penalty on (cost price – sale price) of the house. If the sale price of the house property is higher the fair market value of the house property shall be nil as full amount was deposited in the bank account. The fair market value of the bank account shall be as determined under Rule 3(1) and tax and penalty shall be paid on this amount. (Please also refer to the illustration under Rule 3(3) for computation of fair market value.)

Further, it is advisable to declare all the undisclosed foreign assets even if the fair market value as computed in accordance with Rule 3 comes to nil. This may avoid initiation of any inquiry under the Act in the future in case such asset comes to the notice of the Assessing Officer.

Circular No. 15/2015 (Annexure 5)

** ** **

FAQ 7. A person, while being a non-resident, earned foreign income, not chargeable to tax in India, (exempt income) which was deposited in a foreign bank account. The person became resident in India in F.Y. 2013-14 and since then only interest is being credited to the account. Such income including interest income has not been offered to tax in India. In such case what should be the disclosure under the tax compliance?

As stated the person was non-resident for the F.Y. 2012-13 and earlier years, and the foreign income for such years was not chargeable to tax in India for the F.Y. 2013-14 and subsequent years, while he is resident in India, the person’s global income is taxable in India. Accordingly, the declaration of foreign bank account in this case, which has been made partially out of undisclosed income chargeable to tax, may be made. In this case, the value of undisclosed foreign bank account shall be computed as per rule 3(1) of the Rules and a deduction as per section 5 of the Act shall be allowable. Therefore, the value of such account shall be the sum of all credits in the bank account as reduced by income not chargeable to tax in India (exempt income), which has been credited into such account. In this case, exempt income would be the foreign income deposited in the bank account upto the F.Y. 2012-13. Therefore, in effect the value of bank account in this case would be the sum of interest credits into the account since 1.04.2013.

FAQ 8. A person was a non-resident from F.Ys. 1996-97 to 2010-11 during which he was employed in a foreign country. The person received salary which was taxable in the foreign country and credited into a foreign bank account. The person also received contributions to his pension account from his employer. The person became a resident in India in F.Y. 2011-12. Whether the person is required to declare his pension account under the tax compliance?

As stated, the salary and pension received before F.Y. 2011-12 was not chargeable to tax in India. However, on or after 1-04-2011 when the person became resident in India any accretion to the pension account (in the form of interest, dividend, capital gain or any other sum) is chargeable to tax in India. Therefore, declaration of such account may be made under Chapter VI of the Act. The value of such account shall be the accretions to the account since 1-04-2011.


  1. [2021] 128 taxmann.com 152/190 ITD 611 (Delhi – Trib.)
  2. [2021] 132 taxmann.com 20/[2022] 193 ITD 141 (Mum. – Trib.)

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